3 Responses

  1. I wonder: why does the Bible call Jesus “son of Man” instead of “son of Woman”? After all, he was supposed to have no earthly father…

    Of course I’m sure it would be argued that there’s a symbolic meaning, but I’m betting that it would use different language if there were women contributing equally with men to writing the Bible.

  2. bar enosh (son of man in aramaic) is an ambiguous term. its common meaning is a dude, that is, ‘a certain man’ or simply ‘a man’. however, it was also imbued with a messianic meaning. this is why jesus chose it: he could refer to himself as son of man and those who thought he was the messiah would understand it that way, while he could claim he was simply using the common expression of ‘a man’ when his opponents accused him of blasphemy.

  3. Man, he was just hit by a car in Massachusetts not that long ago.

    He’s having a bad year.

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